Copy of KASAS DO228 INITIAL TECHNICAL EXAM

Question 1 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the maximum operating (VMO), in KIAS up to 15000 feet (-100)?

144 KIAS

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150 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

200 KIAS

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Question 2 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the maximum maneuvering speed in KIAS (-212)?

140 KIAS

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144 KIAS

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150 KIAS

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Question 3 of 220

1 point(s)

Define VMC speed?

The minimum speed at which controls are still effective

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The minimum speed for flap deployment

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The maximum speed at which controls are still effective

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Question 4 of 220

1 point(s)

What is VMC speed, flap down, in KIAS (-212)?

81 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

76 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

74 KIAS

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Question 5 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the maximum recommended tailwind for takeoff and landing?

5 knots

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10 knots

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15 knots

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Question 6 of 220

1 point(s)

What are the memory items for an ‘engine failure’ after V1?

A

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B

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C

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Question 7 of 220

1 point(s)

What are the memory items an ‘engine fire’ on ground?

A

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B

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C

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Question 8 of 220

1 point(s)

What are the memory items for an engine failure in flight, with airspeed above VMC?

A

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B

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C

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Question 9 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the procedure for a manual engine start?

Start Selector to VENT, Starter Switch START and hold, at 10% to 15% RPM MAN IGN switch to START, ENRICH – press to get ignition.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Start Selector to GROUND, Starter Switch to START, ENRICH – press to get ignition

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Start Selector to VENT, MAN IGN to start, Starter Switch to START and release.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 10 of 220

1 point(s)

How do you know that the ITT and torque limiter is working?

FF and ITT rise when test switch activated above 20% torque

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FF and ITT remain the same when test switch activated above 20% torque

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FF and ITT fall when test switch activated above 20% torque

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Question 11 of 220

1 point(s)

If fuel boost pump 2 is inop, will this affect the unusable fuel during descent?

Yes, increase by 50 lbs

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No

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Only if boost pump 1 is also inoperative

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Question 12 of 220

1 point(s)

What is TODA?

Takeoff Distance Available

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Takeoff Distance Actual

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Takeoff Distance Aerial

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Question 13 of 220

1 point(s)

What is TORA?

Takeoff Run Actual

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Takeoff Run Available

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Takeoff Run Aerial

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Question 14 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the definition of V1?

Decision to abort the takeoff with an engine failure

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Decision to continue the takeoff with engine failure

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Decision to abort the takeoff roll with engine failure

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Question 15 of 220

1 point(s)

The TPE 331 has a high starting electrical current due to:

Free turbine arrangement

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Fixed shaft turbine arrangement

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Series battery arrangement

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Question 16 of 220

1 point(s)

A series vs a parallel battery start will be:

Slower with a higher engine start temperature peak

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Faster with a lower engine start temperature peak

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The same

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Question 17 of 220

1 point(s)

The fuel tank cross feed function is used for:

Transferring fuel from one tank to the other

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Feeding an engine from the opposite tank

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Balance fuel quantity in the tanks after uneven pressure refueling.

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Question 18 of 220

1 point(s)

Thermal runaway in a NiCad battery is caused by:

Over charging of the battery under shop conditions

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Internal short of the battery due to external damage

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Increased charging current caused by a weak battery that then heats up & the cycle repeats until the battery overheats and can catch fire

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Question 19 of 220

1 point(s)

If start locks are not engaged during the engine shut down procedure, the propeller will:

Remain in fine pitch

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Move towards feather

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Continue to rotate for longer

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Question 20 of 220

1 point(s)

If start locks are not engaged during the engine shut down procedure, the crew can:

Manually move the blades to feather

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Use the unfeather pump to put propeller onto the start locks

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Start up the engine in feather and follow the correct shut down procedure

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Question 21 of 220

1 point(s)

Sticky start locks can be disengaged when the engine is running by:

Lubricating them during engine run

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Inserting a piece of locking wire to hold them out

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Increasing engine RPM using the speed lever and trying again

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Question 22 of 220

1 point(s)

A vibrating propeller must be balanced in order to prevent:

Discomfort for the passengers due to excessive noise and vibration

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Damage to sensitive instruments in the cockpit, especially gyros

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Damage to internal gearbox gears and bearings leading to SOAP alerts

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Question 23 of 220

1 point(s)

The function of the feather valve is to:

Feather the engine during start

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Block oil pressure from leaving the propeller dome back to the oil tank

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Dump propeller dome oil to the oil tank allowing the propeller to feather

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Question 24 of 220

1 point(s)

An auto start uses which components to control FF and IGN:

The fuel shutoff valves

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The pressurizing valves

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The speed switches

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Question 25 of 220

1 point(s)

As oil temperature increases, its effect on oil pressure is as follows:

No effect as the oil pressure regulator compensates the output

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Pressure rises

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Pressure falls due to lower viscosity of hot oil

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Question 26 of 220

1 point(s)

A rise in oil temperature together with a drop in oil pressure is a sign that:

Nothing is wrong, the engine is operating normally within its parameters

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There is low oil quantity in the tanks and it must be filled at the next stop

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There could be an internal engine problem heating the oil causing a pressure drop due to lower viscosity.

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Question 27 of 220

1 point(s)

An oil temperature system gauge error can be checked:

On ground before start with cold engines

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In flight with cold engines on the first flight of the day

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By using a digital multi meter to check that the system voltage is balanced

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Question 28 of 220

1 point(s)

A sudden higher-than-normal engine oil temperature during flight, when all other parameters remain the same, is most likely due to the following:

All the oil has leaked out of the oil cooler

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The indicator needle is stuck in the high oil temperature position

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High system resistance has introduced an oil temperature gauge error

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Question 29 of 220

1 point(s)

Which of the following annunciator lights are red:

OIL, DOOR, BATT TEMP

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FUEL PRESS, OIL, DOOR

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OIL, BATT HOT, SMOKE

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Question 30 of 220

1 point(s)

Can you mute the landing gear warning horn at all times and in all situations?

Yes

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No

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Yes, but only by pulling the CB

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Question 31 of 220

1 point(s)

Select the correct components of the Hydraulic System:

Landing Gear, Flaps, NWS, Rudder

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NWS, Brakes, Landing Gear, Flaps

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NWS, Brakes, Landing Gear

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Question 32 of 220

1 point(s)

How does the emergency landing gear system work?

Mechanical hand crank

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Hydraulic accumulator bottle

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Nitrogen blow down bottle

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Question 33 of 220

1 point(s)

Select the correct normal hydraulic system operating pressure range:

180-230 bar

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100-180 bar

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230-250 bar

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Question 34 of 220

1 point(s)

If the aircraft must taxi on one engine, make sure the HYD switch is:

In “MAN ON” position

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In “NORM” position

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In “OFF” position

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Question 35 of 220

1 point(s)

The deflection of the NWS with speed levers high is:

45 degrees

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8 degrees

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It depends on the PIC’s rudder pedal input

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Question 36 of 220

1 point(s)

Are you able to secure the ailerons with the internal gust lock?

Yes

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No

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Only with an extra external aileron locking pin

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Question 37 of 220

1 point(s)

Are crew permitted to use another type II engine oil brand when re-filling the engine oil?

No, normally oils should not be mixed.

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Yes, but oil must be drained on return to maintenance

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Yes, provided it’s a type II turbine engine oil, they can be interchanged

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Question 38 of 220

1 point(s)

When will the oil vent valve open during the engine starting phase?

0-55% RPM

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10-55% RPM

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Above 55% RPM

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Question 39 of 220

1 point(s)

Why does the oil vent valve open during the starting phase?

To allow oil into the gearbox during starting

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To increase lubrication efficiency of the starter during starting

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Allows air into the oil system to reduce starter load during starting

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Question 40 of 220

1 point(s)

If the start selector switch is in “VENT”, are you able to start the engine if you select the Manual Ignition to “ON”?

Yes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only if the unfeather pump switch is also depressed

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Question 41 of 220

1 point(s)

What does Category A in the MEL system (time limits) mean?

The time interval specified in the “Remarks” column

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Unlimited

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1 day

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Question 42 of 220

1 point(s)

What does Category B in the MEL system (time limits) mean?

The time interval specified in the “Remarks” column

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10 calendar days

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3 calendar days

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Question 43 of 220

1 point(s)

What does Category C in the MEL system (time limits) mean?

120 calendar days

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3 calendar days

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10 calendar days

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Question 44 of 220

1 point(s)

What does Category D in the MEL system (time limits) mean?

10 calendar days

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120 calendar days

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3 calendar days

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Question 45 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the number required for dispatched day VMC aircraft for the inverter INOP according to MEL system?

1

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

None

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 46 of 220

1 point(s)

What is an “Established ILS approach”?

When the localizer “is alive”

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When an aircraft is on the inbound heading and within two and a half degrees of the localizer course

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When the glide slope is intercepted

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Question 47 of 220

1 point(s)

When do you call for “SINK RATE” during an established approach?

When the rate of descent exceeds 800 ft/min below 1,500 ft agl

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When the rate of descent exceeds 1,200 ft/min at any time

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When the rate of descent is more than 1,000 ft/min below 2,500 ft agl

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Question 48 of 220

1 point(s)

What is an “Established VISUAL approach”?

When both crew have the runway in sight

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When the aircraft is at 5 Nms final at 500 ft agl

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When the aircraft is lined up with the runway, flown at the desired approach speed in the landing configuration. The aircraft must be stabilized not later than 500 ft agl or at 3 Nms final

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Question 49 of 220

1 point(s)

When do you call “AIRSPEED” on an established approach?

When exceeding the selected speed by +10 or -5kts

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When the selected speed is exceeded by 15 kts

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When approaching Vne

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Question 50 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the Dornier 228 TO/LDG crosswind limitation?

30 knots

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40 knots

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45 knots

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Question 51 of 220

1 point(s)

Determine the takeoff ground run given the following:

Obstacle	Flaps	OAT	Press. Alt.	Gross Wgt.	Headwind
35 ft	1	25⁰C	5,000 ft	5,000 kg	15 Kts

430 meters

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630 meters

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530 meters

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Question 52 of 220

1 point(s)

Determine the takeoff distance required given the following:

Obstacle	Flaps	OAT	Press. Alt.	Gross Wgt.	Headwind
35 ft	1	25⁰C	5,000 ft	5,000 kg	15 Kts

600 meters

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700 meters

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800 meters

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Question 53 of 220

1 point(s)

Determine the Accelerate – Stop distance given the following:

Flaps	OAT	Press. Alt.	Gross Wgt.	Headwind
1	30⁰C	4,000 ft	4,800 kg	20 Kts

400 meters

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500 meters

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600 meters

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Question 54 of 220

1 point(s)

Determine the fuel required to top of climb given the following (Based on Vy):

OAT	Press. Alt.	OAT – Cruise Alt	Pressure Alt – Cruise	Gross Wgt.
10⁰C	6,000 ft	-15⁰C	15,000 ft	5,200 kg

55 Ibs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

75 Ibs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

95 Ibs

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Question 55 of 220

1 point(s)

Determine the distance to climb, given the following:

OAT	Press. Alt.	OAT – Cruise Alt	Pressure Alt – Cruise	Gross Wgt.
10⁰C	6,000 ft	-15⁰C	15,000 ft	5,200 kg

10 NM

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15 NM

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20 NM

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Question 56 of 220

1 point(s)

Find out time to climb given the following:

OAT	Press. Alt.	OAT – Cruise Alt	Pressure Alt – Cruise	Gross Wgt.
10⁰C	6,000 ft	-15⁰C	15,000 ft	5,200 kg

2.6

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3.2 min

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4.2 min

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Question 57 of 220

1 point(s)

Find out best rate of climb speed (2 Engines) with flaps up and a gross weight of 5,200 kg.

123 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

129 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

120 KIAS

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Question 58 of 220

1 point(s)

When crew are performing training or positioning flights:

They may fly in any attire they like

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Must fly in uniform

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Are not permitted to fly in flip flops

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Question 59 of 220

1 point(s)

The standard Kasas Ops Manual duty sign on and sign off times are:

45 mins before the scheduled takeoff time and 30 mins after the landing time

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1 hour before the scheduled takeoff time and 1 hour after the landing time

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30 mins before the scheduled takeoff time and 15 mins after the landing time

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Question 60 of 220

1 point(s)

On a day off at an outstation, what is the company policy on alcohol consumption?

It’s the crew’s day off so they may consume alcohol as they like

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They may consume alcohol provided they stop 8 hours before the next flight

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No alcohol may be consumed during the day in case of an emergency, and evacuation flights are required.

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Question 61 of 220

1 point(s)

What is Safety?

Being safe

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The condition of being protected from harm or other non-desirable outcomes

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Reporting incidents and hazards

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Question 62 of 220

1 point(s)

Define SMS.

Safety Reporting, Safety Risk Analysis, Report Investigation, Safety Promotion

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Reporting incidents and hazards

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Systematic management of the risks to achieve high levels of safety performance

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Question 63 of 220

1 point(s)

What are the 4 Pillars of Safety Management System?

Safety Policy, Safety Risk Management, Safety Promotion, Safety Assurance

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Safety Reporting, Safety Risk Analysis, Report Investigation, Safety Promotion

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Safety Assurance, Safety Risk Management, Safety Reporting, Risk Analysis

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Question 64 of 220

1 point(s)

What ICAO Annex outlines Safety Standards and Recommended Practices?

Annex 19

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Annex 9

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Annex 18

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Question 65 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the difference between the MMEL and the MEL?

The MMEL is the master document, and the MEL is operator and aircraft specific

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The MEL is the master document, and the MMEL is operator and aircraft specific

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They are the same

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Question 66 of 220

1 point(s)

What (M) means in aircraft remarks and exceptions in column 4 (MEL)

Operations procedure to be followed by the crew in case the system is INOP

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Maintenance procedure which must be accomplished prior to operation with the listed item INOP

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

For info only, not related to the INOP system.

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Question 67 of 220

1 point(s)

How should the crew positively identify an inoperative engine before retarding the SPEED LEVER?

Low oil pressure and low oil temperature

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Low torque, low ITT and low RPM

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Low airspeed and low oil pressure

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Question 68 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the maximum flight time with full feeder tanks and engines at max power (total electrical failure)?

10 minutes

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20 minutes

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30 minutes

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Question 69 of 220

1 point(s)

What is procedure when faced with a double generator failure?

A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

C

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Question 70 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the correct position for the hydraulic switch when performing a single engine landing?

MAN ON

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ON

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

OFF

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 71 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the procedure if the NWS “BYPASS” caution illuminates on ground?

A

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B

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C

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Question 72 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the procedure if the nose wheel steering “NWS 45” caution light illuminates on ground?

A

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B

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C

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Question 73 of 220

1 point(s)

During a generator assisted start of the non-running engine, the running generator assists:

One battery

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No batteries

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Both batteries

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Question 74 of 220

1 point(s)

If you have to use the alternative static source, which systems must be switched off?

The AP system

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The synchrophaser

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The pitot system

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Question 75 of 220

1 point(s)

What are the system voltages of the AC and DC power systems?

24 VDC, 26 VAC, 115 VAC

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24 VAC, 26 VDC, 115 VAC

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24 VDC and 115 VAC

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Question 76 of 220

1 point(s)

The use of gust locks and tie downs on the aircraft are critical in all stations to prevent:

Flight control damage due to jet blast, prop wash and strong storms

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Inadvertent movement of the flight controls due to birds

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Inadvertent movement of the aircraft by airport personnel

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Question 77 of 220

1 point(s)

As all Dornier 228 crew only get a P1 rating in their license this means:

All crew can log all hours gained in the cockpit as P1

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Crew are only allowed to log 50% of their flight time in the cockpit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Only the Captains are permitted to log P1 in their logbooks.

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Question 78 of 220

1 point(s)

Outstation crew handovers are critical for the following purpose:

Passing general information regarding the accommodation to the new crewmember

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Passing general information regarding the transport situation to the new crewmember

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Passing critical safety and operations information to the new crew crewmember.

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Question 79 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the reporting interval crew are required to report on the tracking system?

Every 20 minutes

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Every 30 minutes

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Every 60 minutes

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Question 80 of 220

1 point(s)

What is Kasas tolerance of sexual harassment by employees:

Depends on the individual concerned

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Depends on the circumstances

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Zero tolerance

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Question 81 of 220

1 point(s)

What is Kasas’ tolerance level of alcohol at work:

Zero tolerance

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Depends on the circumstances

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Depend on the individual concerned

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Question 82 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the purpose of safety reporting?

To satisfy Regulatory requirements

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Identification of hazards, to raise awareness and effect a mitigation measure or corrective action to reduce the risk as low as reasonably possible to facilitate safe operations

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To ensure a system consistently meets the specified requirements, satisfies stated needs, or produces desired outcomes

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Question 83 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the max allowable speed to use the windshield wipers?

120 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

130 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

140 KIAS

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Question 84 of 220

1 point(s)

. What is the minimum fuel quantity in the feeder tanks required for takeoff?

2 X 200 lbs

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1 X 200 lbs

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2 X 400 lbs

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Question 85 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the total useable fuel in all fuel tanks?

4251 lbs

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4156 lbs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2441 liters

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Question 86 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the total fuel in all fuel tanks (without AUX tanks)?

4251 lbs

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4156 lbs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2441 liters

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Question 87 of 220

1 point(s)

. What is the maximum water equivalent depth allowed for operation on a contaminated runway?

10 mm

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15 mm

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

20 mm

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Question 88 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the minimum airspeed to perform an AIRSTART?

67 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

75 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

92 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 89 of 220

1 point(s)

What does the orange triangle on the ITT gauge indicate?

Maximum ITT limit for start

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Maximum ITT limit for normal operation

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Maximum reverse ITT limit

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Question 90 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the maximum start ITT limit

923 degrees C

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850 degrees C

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1149 degrees C

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Question 91 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the starter limitation when performing multiple starts?

After 2 consecutive starts min followed by a 1 hour cool down

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After 3 consecutive starts min followed by a 1 hour cool down

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After 4 consecutive starts min followed by a 1 hour cool down

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Question 92 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the green range on the hydraulic brake accumulator indicator?

80-250 Bar

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0-250 Bar

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0-80 Bar

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Question 93 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the maximum operating (VMO), in KIAS up to 15000 feet (-212)?

200 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

223 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

232 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 94 of 220

1 point(s)

How many taxi lights are required for night operations?

One

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Two

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

None, provided both landing lights are operative

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Question 95 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the procedure for ventilation or dry motoring an engine?

START selector switch – “VENT”, Starter switch – “START” and hold. Release after 20 seconds or at 17% RPM, whichever comes first.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

START selector switch – “GROUND”, Starter switch – “START” and hold.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

START selector switch – “VENT”, Starter switch – “START” and release

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Question 96 of 220

1 point(s)

During an engine start sequence, if the engine oil pressure is below 40 PSI after 30 seconds, the crew should:

Continue the start and wait for the oil pressure to stabilize

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Shut down the engine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increase the oil pressure manually

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Question 97 of 220

1 point(s)

Find out time to climb with one engine inoperative given the following:

Other Engine Power	OAT	Press. Alt. – Field	OAT – Cruise	Press Alt. – Cruise	Gross Wgt.
100%	25⁰C	4,000 ft	0⁰C	10,000 ft	5,200 kg

7 min

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

11 min

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

9 min

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 98 of 220

1 point(s)

Find out fuel quantity used to descend given the following:

Initial Alt.	Final Alt.	Aircraft Weight	Descent Speed
10,000 ft	1,000 ft	4,000 kg	223 KIAS

58 kg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

68 kg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

78 kg

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 99 of 220

1 point(s)

Find out distance to descend given the following (Cruise Descent):

Initial Alt.	Final Alt.	Aircraft Weight	Descent Speed
10,000 ft	1,000 ft	4,000 kg	223 KIAS

35 NM

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

45 NM

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

55 NM

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 100 of 220

1 point(s)

Find out time to descend given the following:

Initial Alt.	Final Alt.	Aircraft Weight	Descent Speed
10,000 ft	1,000 ft	4,000 kg	223 KIAS

7 min

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9 min

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

11 min

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 101 of 220

1 point(s)

Find out landing ground run and landing distance given the following:

Obstacle	Flaps	OAT	Press. Alt.	Landing Wgt.	Tailwind	Approach Speed
50 ft	Down	25⁰C	3,000 ft	5,000 kg	5 Kts	VREF

400 meters

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440 meters

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480 meters

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Question 102 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the cross-wind component with 50 degrees off runway direction at 40 knots?

31 Kts

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25 Kts

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5 Kts

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 103 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the definition of VA?

Max Flap Extension Speed – highest speed permissible with flaps in a prescribed extended position

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Max Operating Speed – speed limit that may not be exceeded in normal flight operations

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Maneuvering Speed – max speed at which application of full aerodynamic control will not overstress the aircraft

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Question 104 of 220

1 point(s)

Choose the correct VA airspeed limitation (212):

150 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

81 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

160 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

144 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 105 of 220

1 point(s)

Choose the correct VFE airspeed limitation with flaps 1 (-100):

150 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

144 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

140 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

147 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 106 of 220

1 point(s)

Choose the correct VFE airspeed limitation with flaps 2:

150 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

130 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

200 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

147 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 107 of 220

1 point(s)

Choose the correct VMC airspeed limitation with flaps UP (-100):

107 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

79 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

120 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

81 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 108 of 220

1 point(s)

Choose the correct VMC airspeed limitation with flaps 1 (-202):

78 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

140 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

120 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 109 of 220

1 point(s)

Choose the correct VMC airspeed limitation with flaps 2 (-200):

81 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

74 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

75 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

76 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 110 of 220

1 point(s)

Choose the correct VMC airspeed limitation with flaps DN (-100):

72 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

74 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

75 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

76 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 111 of 220

1 point(s)

Choose the correct VMO airspeed limitation (-212):

230 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

223 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

180 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

200 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 112 of 220

1 point(s)

Find out distance to climb with one engine inoperative given the following:

Other Engine Power	OAT	Press. Alt. – Field	OAT – Cruise	Press Alt. – Cruise	Gross Wgt.
100%	25⁰C	4,000 ft	0⁰C	10,000 ft	5,200 kg

10 NM

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

15 NM

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

20 NM

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 113 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the definition of V2?

Speed at which the aircraft will climb in the event of an engine failure

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Speed at which a takeoff abort should be initiated

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Speed at which the takeoff can still be aborted

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Question 114 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the purpose of Mandatory reporting?

To facilitate collection and exchange of information on actual or potential safety hazards and deficiencies and contribute to the prevention aircraft accidents

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To ensure a system consistently meets the specified requirements, satisfies stated needs, or produces desired outcomes

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To satisfy Regulatory Requirements

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Question 115 of 220

1 point(s)

What is Voluntary reporting?

Issues that MUST be reported as soon as they are identified

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Reporting of either an accident, serious incident or risk

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Issues that CAN be reported, but one is not obligated to do so

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Question 116 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the definition of OHSE?

Operational Health Safety Environment

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Occupational Hazard Safety Environment

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Occupational Health Safety Environment

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Question 117 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the timeframe within which a report on an encountered hazard, or occurrence should a report be filed?

within a reasonable period of time

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Within 7 days

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Immediately

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Question 118 of 220

1 point(s)

What is Mandatory reporting?

Issues that MUST be reported as soon as they are identified

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Issues that CAN be reported, but one is not obligated to do so

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reporting of either an accident, serious incident or risk

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Question 119 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the acceleration altitude during ENGINE FAILURE OR NORMAL TAKEOFF?

1,000 ft agl

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400 ft agl with landing gear and flaps up

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After a positive rate of climb with landing gear up

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Question 120 of 220

1 point(s)

If the approach is not stable at 500 ft above the runway or 3 miles final, what should the crew do?

Initiate a Go Around

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Stabilize the approach and continue to land

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Abort the landing and return to base

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Question 121 of 220

1 point(s)

A circling approach shall be abandoned and a Go Around performed if:

There are goats in the vicinity

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It has rained the day before

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The visibility is below the applicable minima

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 122 of 220

1 point(s)

When do you call “LOCALIZER ALIVE” on an established approach? (changed wording)

When localizer is within 1 dot of inbound course

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When localizer bar moves from full deflection

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When localizer is centered on inbound course

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Question 123 of 220

1 point(s)

When do you call “GLIDE SLOPE ALIVE” on an established approach? (changed wording)

When the glide path bar moves from full deflection

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When the glide path bar is within 1 dot of the glide slope

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When the glide path bar is stabilized on the glide slope for 5 seconds

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 124 of 220

1 point(s)

When MUST a “GO-AROUND” be initiated?

When the approach is unstable

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When there are animals on the runway

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Both of the above

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Question 125 of 220

1 point(s)

When is a “RADIAL ALIVE” called out on a VOR?

When the CDI is half-deflection relative to the selected course

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When the CDI is maintained steady for 5 seconds or more

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When the CDI moves from full deflection

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 126 of 220

1 point(s)

If the start selector is in “AIR” position, which system is automatically activated?

The starter motor

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The unfeathering pump

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The igniters

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 127 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the final call on the MDA/DH (minima)?

“100 ft to go”

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“Minimums – runway in sight” or “Minimums – go-around”

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“Runway in sight – landing”

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Question 128 of 220

1 point(s)

Which BUS does the engine fire detection system draw its power from?

The “ESS BUS”

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The “MAIN BUS”

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The “NON ESS BUS”

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Question 129 of 220

1 point(s)

Choose the statement which best describes the engine fire extinguishing system:

The bottles contain dry powder extinguishing agent

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Each engine has its own dedicated fire bottle

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fire bottle pressure range is between 100 and 700 bar depending on the OAT

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 130 of 220

1 point(s)

During the engine starting cycle, at the moment of depressing the start switch, the current flowing through the starter generator is:

Highest

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Lowest

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The same as throughout the start

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Question 131 of 220

1 point(s)

After starting the engine, if the yellow “IGN” light remains on this means:

Ignition is still on

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ignition is still on and starter is still engaged

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It will extinguish automatically after some time

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 132 of 220

1 point(s)

If the yellow IGN light remains on after start you should:

Shut down the engine immediately

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pull the Start Control CB to re-set the engine speed switch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reset the master power switch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 133 of 220

1 point(s)

After a complete electrical failure, will the lack of ignition cause the engines to shut down?

Yes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, unless you activate the continuous ignition switch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 134 of 220

1 point(s)

To tie BATT BUS 1, the “BUS TIE” switch should be in the following position:

LH

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RH

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Center

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Question 135 of 220

1 point(s)

How do you re-set a generator that won’t come online?

Remove and re-apply the GPU

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pull the respective BATT CB

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Press the “GEN” switch to reset and hold for 5 seconds

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 136 of 220

1 point(s)

Crew should keep a minimum of one boost pump per wing “ON” until parking positon has been reached to prevent the following:

Engine shut down

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Propeller shut down

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Possibility of an engine tail pipe fire

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 137 of 220

1 point(s)

If a BATT TEMP light illuminates after first engine start at base:

Isolate the hot battery; continue to charge the remaining battery; once the remaining battery is charged, shut down the aircraft, and request that the batteries to be replaced

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Isolate the hot battery and continue with other engine start

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ignore the warning and continue with other engine start after letting the batteries cool for some time.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 138 of 220

1 point(s)

If a BATT TEMP light illuminates after second engine start at base:

Isolate the hot battery and continue with the flight as normal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Isolate the hot battery; continue to charge the remaining battery; once the remaining battery is charged, shut down the aircraft and request batteries to be replaced

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Immediately shut down the engines and evacuate the aircraft. Attempt another engine start once the batteries have cooled down.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 139 of 220

1 point(s)

If a BATT TEMP light illuminates after the second engine start at a remote airfield:

Isolate the hot battery, continue with the flight. Charge battery again once BATT HOT light extinguishes in flight. Monitor for BATT HOT light and isolate again if necessary.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Immediately shut down the engines and evacuate the aircraft. Attempt another start once batteries have cooled down.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Do nothing, the battery will cool down after takeoff

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 140 of 220

1 point(s)

A BATT TEMP light signifies:

The battery is in immediate danger of fire and explosion

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The battery temp will continue to rise unless its isolated from the charging source

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The battery will no longer accept charging current until it cools down

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 141 of 220

2 point(s)

Engine starting on the Dornier 228 is (one or a combination of answers):

24 volt series start

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

48 volt parallel start

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

48 volt series start

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

24 volt parallel start

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 142 of 220

1 point(s)

The correct indications that the engine fuel purge system is functioning are:

Immediate ITT, RPM, FF drop after activating the STOP switch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Immediate ITT, RPM, FF rise after activating the STOP switch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ITT, RPM rise and FF drop after activating the STOP switch, and an audible change in the engine sound.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 143 of 220

1 point(s)

The correct functioning of the engine fuel purge system is important because:

It burns excess fuel in the nozzles to prevent clogging

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It prepares the engine for the next auto start sequence

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

It purges the excess fuel from the nozzles back to the fuel tank

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 144 of 220

1 point(s)

The correct procedure to extinguish an engine tail pipe fire is:

Shut down the affected engine and immediately depress the engine START switch to blow out the fire.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pull the affected fire handle and turn to activate the bottle. Evacuate the aircraft immediately.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Shut down the engine normally with prop on the locks. Place start selector to “VENT”, depress and hold the START switch to blow out the fire.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 145 of 220

1 point(s)

Can the engine fire extinguisher bottle be used to extinguish a tail pipe fire?

Yes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only if the start selector is in the “VENT” position

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 146 of 220

1 point(s)

During flight with the boost pumps “ON”, the feeder tank will be:

Empty

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Full

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Same level as the main fuel tank

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 147 of 220

1 point(s)

The purpose of the fuel feeder tanks is to:

Store extra fuel for the flight

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Separate out the water

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Always ensure that an adequate quantity of fuel is available for running the engines

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Question 148 of 220

1 point(s)

When on ground with no boost pumps on, the feeder tank will be:

Empty

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Full

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Same level as the main tank

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Depends on the fuel quantity when the engines were shut down

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 149 of 220

1 point(s)

If both boost pumps fail during flight, the following statement is true:

The engine will continue running, but feeder tank fuel is un-useable

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The engine will continue running, but un-useable fuel quantity in the tank will increase

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

There is a danger of the engine shutting down; land as soon as practical

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 150 of 220

1 point(s)

With 1,200lbs total fuel showing on the gauges, and the “LH FUEL QTY” light illuminates, crew should:

Ignore the warning, as it must be a false reading as the fuel gauges show sufficient fuel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ignore the gauges; the affected tank has 180lbs of fuel remaining

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Transfer fuel from the opposite fuel tank until the low level light goes off

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 151 of 220

1 point(s)

Failing fuel quantity probes can:

Cause the fuel gauges to over read the fuel quantity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cause the fuel gauges to under read the fuel quantity

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cause the fuel gauges to get stuck and not move

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 152 of 220

1 point(s)

If both boost pumps on one side have failed during flight, what will happen to the engine?

The engine will slowly wind down and then flame out

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The engine will continue to get fuel from the engine driven pump and gravity feed.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Engine power must be reduced to prevent the possibility of a flame out.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 153 of 220

1 point(s)

The maximum permissible fuel imbalance for takeoff is:

500lbs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

600lbs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

700lbs

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 154 of 220

1 point(s)

Why does the engine bleed air have to be “OFF” for takeoff:

To reduce air flow to the cabin

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To increase air flow to the cabin from ram air

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To increase the power available from the engines

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 155 of 220

1 point(s)

The RSD system calculates:

Ground speed using the flap position indication

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

VS X 1.3 and is connected to the stall warning and flap system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Optimal landing configuration given the aircraft weight and speed

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 156 of 220

1 point(s)

During periods of high bird migration or high bird strike risk, what is the maximum recommended airspeed used for Approach:

130 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

135 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

140 KIAS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 157 of 220

1 point(s)

How many ELT units are installed, and the number required for dispatch according to MEL “Remarks and exceptions”?

2 Category A, repair within 5 days

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1 Category A, repair within 5 days

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1 Category C, repair within 10 days

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Question 158 of 220

1 point(s)

How many portable FIRE EXTINGUISHERS are installed and how many are required for dispatch, and what is the repair category?

2 installed, 1 required for dispatch, Category C

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2 installed, 1 required for dispatch, Category D

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

1 installed, 1 required for dispatch, Category D

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 159 of 220

1 point(s)

How many fuel pumps can be INOP, and what is the repair category?

2 can be INOP, one on each side, Category C

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

4 can be INOP, 2 on each side, Category C

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

1 can be INOP on any side, Category C

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 160 of 220

1 point(s)

If a component or system is not listed in the MEL, what does this mean?

The item must be installed and working before flight

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The item does not need to be installed for flight

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The item is not installed on the aircraft

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 161 of 220

1 point(s)

What (O) means in aircraft remarks and exceptions in column 4 (MEL)

Operations procedure to be followed by the crew in case the system is INOP

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Maintenance procedure to be followed by the crew in case the system is INOP

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

For info only, not related to the INOP system.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 162 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the number required to allow dispatch for the “Stall Warning System”?

1

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

0

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 163 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the repair category when 1 fuel quantity indicator is U/S?

A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

B

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

C

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Question 164 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the time limit for the operation of manual ignition above 10 deg C OAT?

1 hour “ON” followed by 1 hour “OFF”

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2 hours “ON” followed by 30 mins “OFF”

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Unrestricted

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 165 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the aircrafts speed when the needle is ON the triangle on the RSD?

VS X 1.1

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

VS X 1.2

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

VS X 1.3

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 166 of 220

1 point(s)

Will fuel pump 1 being inoperative affect the unusable fuel during climb?

Yes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Yes, but only if pump 2 is also inoperative

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 167 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the definition of an occurrence?

a source of potential harm or a situation with a potential to cause loss

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

the fact of an event or incident having happened

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

an occurrence associated with, and related to, the transport of dangerous goods

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 168 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the definition of a hazard?

a source of potential harm or a situation with a potential to cause loss

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

the fact of an event or incident having happened

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

an occurrence associated with, and related to, the transport of dangerous goods

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Question 169 of 220

1 point(s)

Describe the immediate actions required if the GPU power drops offline during engine starting before self-sustaining speed is achieved?

Immediate manual shut down of the engine using the speed lever

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Press enrich to increase engine acceleration

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Immediate shut down using the STOP switch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 170 of 220

1 point(s)

Which system powers the lift transducer heater?

The main electrical bus

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The LH pitot heat system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The RH pitot heat system

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 171 of 220

1 point(s)

If you depress the INV RESET switch to “RESET”, what happens to the inverter system?

Respective AC bus drops offline and then comes back on

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nothing, the inverters cannot be re-set

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Respective inverter is removed from its bus and the other inverter shares the load.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 172 of 220

1 point(s)

If you switch off the “NON ESS” bus during flight, what will happen to the electrical system in the cockpit?

The copilots instrument panel will lose power

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The instrument panel lights will not work

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nothing, all cockpit instruments will continue to function as normal

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 173 of 220

1 point(s)

What are the 4 major sections of a TPE 331 engine?

Compressor, turbine, combustor, free turbine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gearbox, compressor, combustor, turbine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Propeller, compressor, combustor, turbine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 174 of 220

1 point(s)

Which statement best describes BETA (ground) mode:

BETA governor maintains propeller RPM

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Propeller governor maintains RPM

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pilot control of propeller blade angle on ground

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 175 of 220

1 point(s)

During takeoff, the BETA lights are off, what mode is the engine/propeller in?

NTS mode

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BETA mode

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Propeller Governing Mode

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 176 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the purpose of the propeller unfeathering pump?

To feather the propeller on ground and in the air

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To put the propellers on the locks on ground and to start the engine in the air

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To start the engine on the ground and put the propellers on the locks in the air

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 177 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the purpose of the NTS system?

To help stop the engine during an in-flight shutdown

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To pump oil back to the oil tank after an in-flight shut down

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To dump propeller oil into the oil tank to allow a reduction in propeller blade angle.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 178 of 220

1 point(s)

When trimming the aircraft the following happens:

Flaps move to trim the nose up or down

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Elevator moves to trim the nose up or down

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Horizontal stabilizer moves to trim the nose up or down

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 179 of 220

1 point(s)

Where are fuel jet pumps located in the fuel system?

In the feeder fuel tank

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

In the outboard and inboard fuel tanks

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

In main and feeder fuel tanks

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 180 of 220

1 point(s)

A freshly installed engine may exhibit binding 15-45 mins after shutdown. How can the crew manage this situation in case and engine re-start within this time is required?

Engage starter and VENT the engine on ground

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Continuously rotate the propeller by hand to even out internal engine cooling

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Wait until 45 minutes before attempting to start the engine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 181 of 220

1 point(s)

Attempting to start an engine that is binding will cause:

Severe damage due to metal-to-metal contact within the engine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Minimal damage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No damage

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 182 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the definition of Vr?

Speed at which the crew can abort the takeoff

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Speed at which the aircraft has left the ground

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Speed at which the crew should pitch the nose up during takeoff

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 183 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the difference between range and endurance?

Range is the same as endurance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Range is distance travelled, endurance is time in the air.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endurance is always less than range

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 184 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the definition of Vx speed?

Allows climb to altitude with the shortest horizontal distance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The speed for minimum climb rate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Allows climb to altitude in the shortest possible time

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 185 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the definition of Vy speed?

Allows climb to altitude with the shortest horizontal distance

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The speed for minimum climb rate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Allows climb to altitude in the shortest possible time

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 186 of 220

1 point(s)

Which engine has the most adverse effect on handling and performance if it fails during flight (critical engine)?

The RH engine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The LH engine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neither engine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 187 of 220

1 point(s)

The engine driven fuel pump is:

Mechanically driven by the engine gearbox

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Electrically driven

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mechanically driven and electrically activated

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 188 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the purpose of the USFG on the FCU?

Prevents the engine RPM from dropping below a set minimum

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Maintains the engine RPM at a fixed setting

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Maintains the propeller RPM during cruise

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 189 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the purpose of the OSFG on the FCU?

Maintains the propeller RPM during cruise

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prevents exceeding a pre-set maximum engine RPM

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prevents engine RPM from falling below a pre-set maximum

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 190 of 220

1 point(s)

The FCU main metering valve is controlled by the:

OSFG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Power Lever

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Speed Lever

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 191 of 220

1 point(s)

The Fuel Flow divider:

Divides fuel evenly to the engine combustion chamber during flight

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Shuts off fuel after activating the engine STOP switch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Divides fuel between the engines primary and secondary fuel nozzles

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 192 of 220

1 point(s)

Where is the fuel shutoff valve located?

In the cockpit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

In the wing root

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

On the LH side of the engine

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 193 of 220

1 point(s)

When are the secondary fuel nozzles activated?

Immediately at engine start

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When the engine reaches 40% RPM

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

When setting engine torque rises above 65%

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 194 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the “engine critical” RPM range during an engine start?

Between 18% and 28%

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Between 28% and 38%

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Between 28% and 48%

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 195 of 220

1 point(s)

During an engine auto-start procedure, when is the fuel flow and ignition activated by the speed switch?

Upon depressing the START switch

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

At 10% RPM

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

At 65% RPM

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 196 of 220

1 point(s)

If the engine torque indication suddenly reads 20% lower, but the FF, ITT and RPM indications remain the same:

The torque indication system is not accurate due to a single gauge being affected

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The engine has lost 20% torque, therefore crew should advance the power lever to compensate

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The engine is experiencing an actual loss of power as the torque gauge is showing lower torque.

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 197 of 220

1 point(s)

If the engine torque indication is suddenly 20% lower with a corresponding reduction in FF and ITT:

The torque indicating system is not accurate due to multiple gauges being affected

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The engine is experiencing an actual reduction of power due to multiple gauges confirming a change in power output

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjust torque as necessary using the engine power lever

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 198 of 220

1 point(s)

The best way to check the condition of the aircraft batteries is to:

Turn on the master switch and read the battery voltage on the voltmeter located in the overhead panel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

After engine shut down, and before turning off the master switch, check the battery voltage on the voltmeter located in the overhead panel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Immediately after activating the engine START switch, read the battery voltage on the voltmeter located in the overhead panel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 199 of 220

1 point(s)

Before any engine start, crew must first turn the propellers by hand to check:

That the engine not binding before engaging the starter

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

That the engine is cool enough for starting

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

To prime the engine with fuel

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 200 of 220

1 point(s)

When engines are running (ground or flight), who has ultimate responsibility for monitoring that the engine operating limitations (Torque, ITT/EGT, RPM) are kept within acceptable operating limits?

The person sitting in the LH seat

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The most senior person in the cockpit

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

The engineer on board

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 201 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the maximum ITT start temp limit on a -5 engine:

1194 degrees (momentary)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

923 degrees (constant)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

1149 degrees (momentary)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 202 of 220

1 point(s)

If, during engine start and operation on ground, an engine limitation exceedance is observed, what should the person in the LH seat do?

Continue monitoring the exceedance while referring to the POH

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Immediately reduce fuel or shut off the engine (manually or electrically)

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take a video of the exceedance to show the engineers after the event

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 203 of 220

1 point(s)

When running engines on the ground, can engine damage be caused by suddenly shutting off the fuel (manually or electrically) due to an engine parameter that is abnormal?

Yes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 204 of 220

1 point(s)

On a -10 engine, how can crew calculate the maximum allowable EGT for ground power runs or during flight?

Using past experience

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Using the ITT gauge limitation of 923 degrees minus 50 degrees

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Using the EGT vs OAT placard on the dashboard

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 205 of 220

1 point(s)

On a -10 engine, before starting engines and from time to time during climb, how is the maximum operating temperature limit set on the EGT gauge?

Asking the copilot for the ITT limits from the placard

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Using the checklist and marking it with a pen

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

By moving the bug on the EGT gauge face

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 206 of 220

1 point(s)

Is it possible to perform an Overspeed Governor check with the propellers off the locks?

Yes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 207 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the only way propellers can be returned to the start locks?

By selecting reverse at 40% RPM during shut down

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

By selecting reverse at 100% RPM during start up

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

By selecting reverse once engine RPM has stabilized

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 208 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the maximum torque you should see when performing an OSG check?

0%

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

10%

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

20%

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 209 of 220

1 point(s)

If, during an Overspeed Governor check, torque rises beyond 30%, what should you do?

Continue advancing the power lever

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Discontinue the check

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Record the RPM at the time

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 210 of 220

1 point(s)

If, during start, you suspect the propeller start locks are releasing on their own, what should you do for subsequent starts to prevent this?

Start the engine with the power levers slightly further back

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Do a manual engine start with power levers in normal position

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Start the engine with the power levers slightly further forward

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 211 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the maximum generator amps during start and for how long?

375A for 3 seconds

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

500A for 3 seconds

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

375A for 2 minutes

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

500A for 2 minutes

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Question 212 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the max allowable GPU amps?

600A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

800A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

1000A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 213 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the minimum battery voltage for a battery start?

18V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

24V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

30V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 214 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the range of acceptable AC voltages?

18V to 30V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

110A to 120A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

18A to 30A

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

110V to 120V

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 215 of 220

3 point(s)

Put in correct sequence the Memory Items for an Engine Fire in Flight:

Correct Correct Answer Incorrect

View Answers:

Question 216 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the Max Takeoff Weight for the -100?

5540 KG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5730 KG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5700 KG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5500 KG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 217 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the Max Takeoff Weight for the -202?

5700 KG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5980 KG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

6200 KG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

6400 KG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 218 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the Max Takeoff Weight for the -212?

6200 KG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

6430 KG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

6400 KG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5980 KG

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 219 of 220

1 point(s)

What is the total useable fuel quantity in 5Y-BYH in LBS?

2895

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

5042

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2850

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

4964

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Question 220 of 220

1 point(s)

Following a 12 minute Fuel Dump on 5Y-BYH, how much fuel will be remaining in the tanks?

1670 LBS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

1300 LBS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

1760 LBS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

2450 LBS

Correct Incorrect Correct answer

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Copy of KASAS DO228 INITIAL TECHNICAL EXAM

KASAS DO228 INITIAL TECHNICAL EXAM

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